Norwegian Air Worksheet

Provide a 150- to 200-word response for each of the following. Include references where appropriate.

1. Explain the biggest challenges Norwegian Air experienced in trying to expand its airline across the globe.

1. Identify examples of ethnocentric, polycentric, or geocentric attitudes in this case.  Explain why your selected examples illustrate these attitudes.

1. Explain cultural differences that are likely to arise between Norwegian employees working in Denmark and Sweden, and Thailand.  How might these differences affect interpersonal interactions, and what can the company do to reduce any unintended conflict from these differences?  Refer to Table 4.3.

1. Evalute the most important lessons to be learned about global management in this case.

      Link to other tutorials for MGT 521

Just click the Assignment to go to respective tutorial.

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·                   –        MGT 521 week 1 Summary paper

           –  MGT 521 Week 5 individual Assignment – Transformational Leadership

Name:                        –

Course Number:     –

Section Number:    –

Unit Number:           – 4

Date:                          –          

———————————- General Instructions for all Assignments———————————–

1. Unless specified differently by your course instructor, save this assignment template to your computer with the following file naming format:

Course number_section number_LAST_FIRST_ unit number

2.  At the top of the template, insert the appropriate information: Your Name, Course Number, Section Number and Date

3. Insert your answers below, or in the appropriate space provided for in the question.  Your answers should follow the APA format with citations to your sources and, at the bottom of your last page, a list of references. Your answers should also be in Standard English with correct spelling, punctuation, grammar, and style (double spaced, in Times New Roman, 12-point, black font).  Respond to questions in a thorough manner, providing specific examples of concepts, topics, definitions, and other elements asked for in the questions.

4.  Provide a list of references at the end of the last page of your assignment.

5. Upload the completed assignment to the appropriate dropbox.

6. Any questions about the assignment, or format questions, should be directed to your course instructor.

——————————————- Career Competencies —————————————–

In this assignment, you will engage in developing the following career competencies:

Analyzing Quantitative Data

Analyzing Qualitative Data

——————————————-     Assignment          ——————————————-

1. For each of the following situations, decide whether the bundle Lakshani is considering optimal or not. If it is not optimal, how could Lakshani improve her overall level of utility? That is, determine which good she should spend more on and which good should she spend less on. (Things to consider: Budget line and marginal utility per dollar.)

a. Lakshani has $200 to spend on sneakers and sweaters. Sneakers cost $50 per pair, and sweaters cost $20 each. She is thinking about buying 2 pairs of sneakers and 5 sweaters. She tells her friend that the additional utility she would get from the second pair of sneakers is the same as the additional utility she would get from the fifth sweater.  (For this question, you have to consider MU/$.  So, choose a number to represent MU.  The problem states that the utility for the 2nd pair of sneakers is the same as the utility for the 5th sweater.  Assign a random number to represent the MU and determine what the MU/$ would be. This will enable you to determine if it is optimal or not.)

b. Lakshani has $5 to spend on pens and pencils. Each pen costs $0.50 and each pencil costs $0.10. She is thinking about buying 6 pens and 20 pencils. The last pen would add five times as much to her total utility as the last pencil.

c. Lakshani has $50 per season to spend on tickets to football games and tickets to soccer games. Each football ticket costs $10 and each soccer ticket costs $5. She is thinking about buying 3 football tickets and 2 soccer tickets. Her marginal utility from the third football ticket is twice as much as her marginal utility from the second soccer ticket.

2. In the United States, 2007 was a bad year for growing wheat. As the wheat supply decreased, the price of wheat rose dramatically, leading to a lower quantity demanded (a movement along the demand curve). The accompanying table describes what happened to prices and the quantity of wheat demanded.

a. Using the midpoint method, calculate the price elasticity of demand for winter wheat. (I’ve provided an example for you below.)

b. What is the total revenue for U.S. wheat farmers in 2006 and 2007? (For each year.)

c. Did the bad harvest increase or decrease the total revenue of U.S. wheat farmers?  How could you have predicted this from your answer to part a?

3. A recent study determined the following elasticities for Volkswagen Beetles:

Price elasticity of demand = 2

Income elasticity of demand = 1.5

The supply of Beetles is elastic. Based on this information, are the following statements true or false? Explain your reasoning.

a. A 10% increase in the price of a Beetle will reduce the quantity demanded by 20%.

b. An increase in consumer income will increase the price and quantity of Beetles sold. Since price elasticity of demand is greater than 1, total revenue will go down.  (Please address both statements for part b.  They may both be false, both be true, or one true and one false.)

——————————————–

References:

Summative Assessment 

You are a worker in a fast growing, large, non-union manufacturing organization. You notice persistent systematic labor violations in the plant. The company has multiple locations in the United States and plants in China and France. People are complaining about the working conditions and wages. A group of your fellow workers are talking about the need to fight back. There seems to be a willingness to organize. You have decided to seek the help of a Union. Write the following information inproposal format. Remember to follow APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center and to cite at least three scholarly sources in addition to the course text.

• Describe the union organizing process.
• Identify the union you would choose to help you organize and explain why.
• Describe the the responsibilities of the workers.
• Describe what the unions can do to help labor.
• Explain what management can legally say and do when they learn an organization movement is in progress.
• Explain what can be done to help the workers overseas organize.
• Explain why the global nature of the business does or does not influence the organization and bargaining process.

Note: Be sure to check that your Turnitin Similarity Index does not exceed 10% (excluding reference page).

The paper

1. Must be 1250 to 1500 words, double-spaced (not including title and references pages) and formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
2. Must include a separate title page with the following:
   • Title of paper
   • Student’s name
   • Course name and number
   • Instructor’s name
   • Date submitted
3. Must use at least three scholarly sources in addition to the course text.
4. Must document all sources in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
5. Must include a separate references page that is formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.

Carefully review the Grading Rubric for the criteria that will be used to evaluate your assignment.

1. Which of the following items are part of a business’s set of financial statements?

a. Income statement
b. Balance sheet
c. Statement of cash flows
d. Both a. and b. above
e. a., b., and c. above

Answer: _____

2. True or False: The requirement to provide financial accounting information is driven by the need for outside stakeholders (primarily investors) to have reliable information about the financial status of an organization.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

3. True or False: The set of rules and regulations that govern the content and format of financial statements is called Government Acceptable Procedures (GAP).

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

4. Which of the following statements about cash versus accrual accounting is most correct?

a. In cash accounting, an event is recognized when a cash transaction occurs.
b. In accrual accounting, an event is recognized when a cash transaction occurs.
c. Most large healthcare organizations use cash accounting.
d. Most small healthcare organizations use accrual accounting because it closely matches statements required for income tax purposes.
e. In cash accounting, an event is recognized when the obligation for a cash transaction is created.

Answer: _____

5. Which of the following statements about the income statement is most correct?

a. It has several alternative names, including the statement of liabilities.
b. It reports the financial status of an organization as of a single point in time.
c. It reports the economic profitability of an organization.
d. Its three major sections are operating costs, nonoperating costs, and total (net) costs.
e. Income statements are always prepared annually, but never for shorter periods (for example, quarterly).

Answer: _____

6. Which of the following statements about gross and net patient service revenue is most correct?

a. Gross revenue reports revenue based on chargemaster prices.
b. Net revenue is gross revenue less discounts and charity care.
c. Net revenue is gross revenue less discounts, charity care, and bad debt losses.
d. Both a. and b. above are correct.
e. Both a. and c. above are correct.

Answer: _____

7. True or False: Under accrual accounting, all revenues reported on the income statement represent cash collections.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

8. True or False: Under accrual accounting, all expenses reported on the income statement represent cash costs.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

9. Which of the following statements about income statement expenses is most correct?

a. Supplies are expensed (shown) on the income statement when purchased.
b. Supplies are expensed (shown) on the income statement when consumed (used to provide patient services).
c. All lease expense is reported on the income statement.
d. Both a. and c. above are correct.
e. Both b. and c. above are correct.

Answer: _____

10. Which of the following statements concerning depreciation expense is most correct?

a. Depreciation expense accounts for the loss of value of inventory.
b. Depreciation expense accounts for the loss of value of securities investments.
c. Depreciation expense accounts for the loss of value of fixed assets (plant and equipment).
d. For accounting purposes, depreciation expense is calculated by the double declining balance method.
e. For accounting purposes, depreciation expense is calculated by the triple declining balance method.

Answer: _____

11. Which of the following statements concerning net income is most correct?

a. Net income is the “bottom line” of the income statement.
b. Net income measures total profitability as defined by accounting rules and regulations.
c. In not-for-profit businesses, the entire amount of net income is reinvested in the business.
d. Both a. and b. above are correct.
e. a., b., and c. above are correct.

Answer: _____

12. Which of the following statements concerning net income versus cash flow is most correct?

a. Net income is a rough measure of a business’s cash flow.
b. Net income can be converted into a rough measure of cash flow by adding noncash expenses, typically depreciation.
c. Net income can be converted into a rough measure of cash flow by adding nonoperating income.
d. Net income can be converted into a rough measure of cash flow by adding the provision for bad debts.
e. None of the above statements are correct.

Answer: _____

13. Which of the following statements about the organization of the balance sheet is most correct?

a. The balance sheet has upper and lower (or left and right) sections.
b. Assets are divided into current and long-term categories.
c. Assets are divided into equity and non-equity categories.
d. Both a. and b. above are correct.
e. Both a. and c. above are correct.

Answer: _____

14. True or False: Like the income statement, the balance sheet reports the assets and liabilities of an organization over some period of time.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

15. Which of the following equations best describes the accounting identity?

a. Long-term assets = Short-term assets + Equity.
b. Assets = Liabilities + Equity.
c. Total claims = Liabilities + Equity.
d. Short-term assets = Cash + Receivables.
e. Long-term liabilities = Notes + Bonds.

Answer: _____

16. Which of the following statements about the balance sheet is most correct?

a. The lower (right-hand) section reports cash and other assets.
b. The balance sheet reports on a business’s operations.
c. The asset side of the balance sheet is listed in decreasing order of maturity (i.e., longer maturity assets are listed first).
d. The upper (left-hand) section reports liabilities and equity.
e. None of the above statements are correct.

Answer: _____

17. Assume that the value of diagnostic equipment suddenly falls because of technological obsolescence. How is the balance sheet adjusted to preserve the accounting identity?

a. Short-term liabilities are reduced.
b. Long-term liabilities are reduced.
c. Equity is reduced.
d. Inventories are reduced.
e. Cash is reduced.

Answer: _____

18. Which of the following statements concerning accumulated depreciation is most correct?

a. Accumulated depreciation is an income statement item.
b. There is no relationship between depreciation expense on the income statement and accumulated depreciation on the balance sheet.
c. Net fixed assets is equal to gross fixed assets plus accumulated depreciation.
d. Accumulated depreciation appears on the balance sheet under the category “Other Assets.”
e. None of the above statements is correct.

Answer: _____

19. Which of the following statements concerning the statement of cash flows is most correct?

a. Like the balance sheet, the statement of cash flows is as of a single point in time.
b. The statement of cash flows uses information from both the income statement and the balance sheet.
c. The statement of cash flows has five major sections.
d. The most important line on the statement of cash flows is the “bottom line,” the net increase (decrease) in cash.
e. None of the above statements is correct.

Answer: _____

20. Assume that a business’s balance sheet reports total assets of $500,000 and total liabilities of $300,000. Now assume that $20,000 of net fixed assets (net plant and equipment) are written off due to technological obsolescence. All else the same, what is the total equity of the business after the write-off?

a. $200,000
b. $190,000
c. $180,000
d. $170,000
e. There is insufficient information given to answer this question.

Answer: _____

21. Consider the following balance sheet: 
Cash $ 70,000Accounts payable $ 30,000
Accounts receivable 30,000Long-term debt 20,000 
Inventories 50,000Common stock 200,000
Net fixed assets 350,000Retained earnings 250,000
Total assets $500,000Total claims $500,000
Which of the following statements is most correct?

a. The business is not-for-profit.
b. The business, in the aggregate over time, has been profitable.
c. The business is probably using too much debt financing.
d. The business has $450,000 in its equity accounts (common stock and retained earnings); thus, it has this much money available to spend on new facilities.
e. The business has a short-term bank loan outstanding.

Answer: _____

22. Consider the following balance sheet: 
Cash $ 70,000Accounts payable $ 30,000
Accounts receivable 30,000Long-term debt 20,000 
Inventories 50,000Common stock 200,000
Net fixed assets 350,000Retained earnings 250,000
Total assets $500,000Total claims $500,000
Assume that the business uses $10,000 of its cash to pay for supplies that were ordered on credit terms and have already been received and booked (recorded on the balance sheet). Which of the below statements reflects the resulting balance sheet change?

a. There is a change to the left-hand side only.
b. There is a change to the right-hand side only.
c. The cash account decreases by $10,000 and the retained earnings account decreases by $10,000.
d. The cash account decreases by $10,000 and the accounts payable account decreases by $10,000.
e. The cash account decreases by $10,000 and the supplies account increases by $10,000.

Answer: _____

23. Consider the following balance sheet: 
Cash $ 70,000Accounts payable $ 30,000
Accounts receivable 30,000Long-term debt 20,000 
Inventories 50,000Common stock 200,000
Net fixed assets 350,000Retained earnings 250,000
Total assets $500,000Total claims $500,000
Assume that the business uses $30,000 of its cash to pay salaries. Which of the below statements reflects the resulting balance sheet change?

a. There is a change to the left-hand side only.
b. There is a change to the right-hand side only.
c. The cash account decreases by $30,000 and the retained earnings account is reduced by $30,000.
d. The cash account decreases by $30,000 and the long-term debt account is reduced by $30,000.
e. The company does not have the ability to pay $30,000 in salaries.

Answer: _____

24. True or False: Fund accounting is used by investor-owned (for-profit) businesses to differentiate between operating funds and retirement funds.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

25. Which of the following statements about financial condition analysis is most correct?

a. Financial condition analysis focuses on whether or not an organization has the financial capacity to accomplish its mission.
b. Financial condition analysis often results in a list of financial strengths and weaknesses.
c. Financial statement analysis uses data contained in an organization’s financial statements to assess financial condition.
d. Operating analysis uses operating data to explain financial condition.
e. All of the above statements are correct.

Answer: _____

26. True or False: In ratio analysis, a single value has little meaning. Therefore analysts use trend and comparative analyses to help “interpret the numbers.”

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

27. True or False: The primary difference between financial statement analysis and operating analysis is that operating analysis does not use benchmarking while financial statement analysis does.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

28. Which of the following statements about financial statement analysis is most correct?

a. The current ratio measures liquidity.
b. Du Pont analysis is based on the fact that return on equity (ROE) can be expressed as the sum of three other ratios (Ratio 1 + Ratio 2 + Ratio 3).
c. It is relatively easy to interpret a ratio in the absence of comparative and trend data.
d. Both a. and b. above are correct.
e. a., b., and c. above are correct.

Answer: _____

29. True or False: To create common size financial statements, all income statement items and balance sheet accounts are divided by total assets.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

30. Which of the following statements about the limitations of financial condition analysis is most correct?

a. Comparison with industry averages is difficult if the organization operates in several different lines of business.
b. Seasonal factors can distort ratios.
c. Inflation effects can distort ratios.
d. Both a. and b. above are correct.
e. a., b., and c. above are correct.

Answer: _____

31. KPI stands for:

a. Kerrigan patient index
b. Key patient income
c. Key performance indicator
d. Key person insurance
e. Known performance index

Answer: _____

32. True or False: It is always quite easy to determine whether a given ratio value is “good” or “bad.”

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

33. Suppose that two hospitals are identical in all ways except that Hospital N is relatively new while Hospital O is relatively old. Which of the following statements about a comparative financial statement analysis is most correct? (Hint: Think about the differences in the amount of net fixed assets carried on the balance sheet and the amount of depreciation expense reported on the income statement.)

a. Hospital N will report the higher net income.
b. Hospital N will have the higher total asset turnover.
c. Hospital N will have the higher fixed asset turnover.
d. Hospital N will have the lower gross fixed assets.
e. None of the above statements are correct.

Answer: _____

34. Grady Home Health has a profit margin of 15 percent on sales of $20,000,000. If the firm has debt of $7,500,000 and total assets of $22,500,000, what is Grady’s return on assets (ROA)?

a. 13.3%
b. 10.9%
c. 8.0%
d. 5.3%
e. 3.1%

Answer: _____

35. A fire has destroyed a large percentage of the financial records of the Carter Health System. You have the task of piecing together information to prepare a financial report. You have found the profit margin to be 5.4 percent. If sales were $4 million on total assets of $2 million, and the amount of debt financing was $800,000, what was Carter’s return on equity (ROE)? (Hint: Use the Du Pont equation to answer this question.)

a. 13.8%
b. 18.0%
c. 19.2%
d. 21.6%
e. 25.8%

Answer: _____

36. White Memorial Hospital has a debt-to-equity ratio of 0.67. What is the hospital’s debt ratio?

a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%
e. 50%

Answer: _____

37. Which of the following are basic sources (forms) of capital?

a. Debt
b. Equity
c. Leases
d. Convertible bonds
e. Both a. and b. above

Answer: _____

38. The cost of debt capital to a business is measured by the:

a. Maturity date
b. Interest rate
c. Amount borrowed
d. Cost of equity
e. None of the above

Answer: _____

39. True or False: Although many factors influence the interest rate set on a loan, the two most important are risk and inflation.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

40. True or False: Long-term debt is defined as having a maturity of more than six months.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

41. Which of the following statements about short-term debt is most correct?

a. Short-term debt has higher issuance costs than long-term debt.
b. Short-term debt has more restrictions (restrictive covenants) than long-term debt.
c. Short-term debt generally has a lower cost than long-term debt.
d. Most short term debt is obtained by issuing bonds to individuals
e. All of the above statements are correct.

Answer: _____

42. True or False: Municipal bonds are essentially the same as corporate bonds. Thus, the coupon (interest) rate set on a not-for-profit hospital bond will be the same (for all practical purposes) as the rate set on a similar for-profit hospital bond.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

43. Which of the following statements about debt contracts is most correct?

a. Debt contracts have several different names.
b. Debt contracts typically contain restrictive covenants.
c. All debt contracts name a trustee.
d. Both a. and b. above are correct.
e. a., b., and c. above are all correct.

Answer: _____

44. True or False: A call provision allows bondholders to tender (turn in) their bonds at any time and receive the principal amount in return.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

45. Which of the following statements about debt ratings is most correct?

a. The ratings reflect the probability of default.
b. The ratings on outstanding debt are automatically reviewed and updated annually.
c. The ratings are important to investors, but unimportant to issuers.
d. The ratings are based solely on a quantitative analysis of the issuer’s financial condition.
e. The ratings run from A (for the best) to F (for the worst).

Answer: _____

46. Which of the following statements about common stock is incorrect?

a. The pre-emptive right gives current stockholders the right to purchase any new shares issued by the company.
b. Stockholders exercise control over the company by voting for board members.
c. Common stockholders are the owners of for-profit corporations.
d. The claim of shareholders on the cash flows of the firm is limited to the dividends that they receive, i.e., they have no claim on a business’s residual earnings.
e. In the event of bankruptcy and liquidation, shareholders often receive nothing.

Answer: _____

47. True or False: Although the use of financial leverage (debt financing) can increase the return to the owners of a business, it also increases the riskiness of their equity investment.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

48. Which of the following statements about the use of debt financing (financial leverage) is incorrect?

a. In most situations, the use of debt financing increases the return to owners (say, as measured by ROE).
b. In all situations, the use of debt financing increases the riskiness to owners.
c. Capital structure theory allows managers to precisely determine the optimal capital structure for any for-profit business.
d. Debt financing allows more of a business’s operating income to flow through to investors.
e. Because debt financing “levers up” (increases) owners’ returns, its use is called financial leverage.

Answer: _____

49. Which of the following statements about the tradeoff theory of capital structure is most correct?

a. The trade-off theory can be used to set a precise optimal structure for any given business.
b. The trade-off theory tells us that businesses should use almost 100 percent debt financing.
c. The trade-off theory tells us that businesses should use almost no debt financing.
d. The trade-off theory tells us that businesses should use some debt financing, but not too much.
e. The trade-off theory has no applicability at all to not-for-profit businesses.

Answer: _____

50. Which of the following factors influence the estimate of a business’s optimal capital structure?

a. The amount of business (inherent) risk
b. Lender/rating agency attitudes
c. Industry averages
d. The need to maintain financial flexibility (reserve borrowing capacity)
e. All of the above factors influence the estimate

Answer: _____

51. True or False: To minimize the risk associated with debt financing, permanent assets (land, buildings, and equipment) should be financed with long-term debt while temporary assets (such as a seasonal buildup in inventories) should be financed with short-term debt.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

52. True or False: The corporate cost of capital is a blend (weighted average) of the costs of all of a business’s financing sources.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

53. Which of the following statements about cost of capital estimation is most correct?

a. In general, at least five methods will be used to estimate the cost of debt.
b. The corporate cost of capital is the higher of either the cost of equity or the cost of debt.
c. The corporate cost of capital is used as the hurdle (discount) rate for all projects being evaluated in the organization.
d. Because there is no tax savings associated with debt issued by not-for-profit organizations, it is theoretically wrong to recognize the savings for investor-owned businesses.
e. None of the above statements are correct.

Answer: _____

54. Which of the following statements regarding the cost of equity is most correct?

a. The cost of debt is the interest rate set on debt financing, while the cost of equity is defined similarly; it is the rate of return required by equity investors.
b. The debt cost plus risk premium method is one way to estimate the cost of equity.
c. The cost of equity for a not-for-profit business is zero.
d. Both a. and b. above are correct.
e. a., b., and c. above are correct.

Answer: _____

55. True or False: The corporate cost of capital provides a benchmark for determining a project’s cost of capital. In general, projects that are riskier than average must have a cost of capital that is higher than the corporate cost of capital, while projects that are less risky than average must have a cost of capital that is less than the corporate cost of capital.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

56. Generic Health Services has a target capital structure of 30 percent debt and 70 percent equity. Its cost of debt estimate is 10 percent and its cost of equity estimate is 16 percent. It pays federal, state, and local taxes at a 40 percent marginal rate. What is the firm’s corporate cost of capital?

a. 6.0%
b. 10.0%
c. 13.0%
d. 14.2%
e. 16.0%

Answer: _____

Capstone Project Overview

The purpose of this Capstone Project is for students to examine and solve real world information assurance problems and apply associated techniques to create practical solutions. The course takes an integrative and senior security officer approach to address the policy, risk, and control opportunities within cyberspace and IT environments. Deliverables 1 through 5 focus on preparing students toward the final Capstone Project. Skills, experience, and knowledge gained through the completion of prerequisite courses will be used throughout each deliverable. The project contents to be addressed are as follows:

Project Deliverable 1: Evolution of Cyberspace

Due Week 2 and worth 90 points

Project Deliverable 1 consists of using Microsoft Word. Note: You may create and / or make all necessary assumptions needed for the completion of this assignment.

In this deliverable, you will examine the evolution of cyberspace through time and discuss some of the biggest developments that have changed the face of cyberspace. You will also examine the advent of e-Commerce and its impact on cybersecurity, and determine the challenges and countermeasures needed to back up the security-related incidents. 

Submission Requirements

Write a two to three (2-3) page introduction in which you:

1. Explain the evolution of cyberspace through time.
2. Identify one (1) of the biggest developments that have changed the face of cyberspace.
3. Examine the advent of e-Commerce and its impact on cybersecurity.
4. Determine the main challenges and the countermeasures needed to back up the security related to cyberspace.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

• Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

• Analyze the development and evolution of cyberspace and examine the impact of e-Commerce on cybersecurity.
• Use technology and information resources to research issues in information assurance.
• Write clearly and concisely about information assurance topics using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.