Biblical dictionary | Psychology homework help

For these 2 distinct projects, imagine you are writing a series of short articles for a Bible dictionary. As we have seen in our study, Bible dictionaries are useful tools to learn more about the books, people, and places we encounter in Scripture.

 

Your task will be to write:

1.      Three concise 200–250-word essays about a book, person, and setting/place from the Old Testament (Due at the end of Module/Week 5).

2.      Three concise 200–250-word essays about a book, person, and setting/place from the New Testament (Due at the end of Module/Week 8).

 

Content Guidelines: Choose 1 book, person, and place from the list of the provided topics for each of the 2 projects.

 

Your essay must include the following per item:

 

Book:

This essay must include: The basic literary genre, authorship, date written, key themes, purposes, major events, and main personalities.

 

Person:

This essay must include: The dates of the character’s life, place of birth, summary of their role or positions held, defining events in their life and work, contemporaries (other biblical characters they are associated with, etc.), and their legacy. If they are a biblical author, list the related works.

 

Setting/Place (i.e., municipality, kingdom, empire):

This essay must include: The key dates (i.e., founding, demise, etc.), clarification of the location (regional description, the relevance of the place from a biblical/Ancient Near East (ANE) perspective, associated biblical books where it is a backdrop or central location), key attributes (religion, commerce, key figures, etc.), and associated biblical books.

 

Formatting Guidelines:

 

  • Use 1 Microsoft Word document for each stage of submission (That is, all of your Old Testament Bible Dictionary Project will be on 1 document, and all of your New Testament Bible Dictionary Project will be on 1 document).
  • Use 12-point, Times New Roman font.

Week 3: discussion: blood vessel structure

Required Resources

Read/review the following resources for this activity:

  • Textbook: Chapter 19 and 20
  • Week 3 Concepts

Initial Post Instructions

Choose one of the following topics for your initial post:

  1. Let’s start by discussing the structure of our blood vessels. Let’s each take a characteristic of (1) arteries, (2) veins, or (3) capillaries. Build upon what your classmates say to enable us to have a fuller understanding of these vessels that are essential for our existence.
  2. Cardiac output is the amount of blood ejected from the left or right ventricle in any given minute. Cardiac output must be maintained in order to keep sufficient blood flow through the capillaries. Identify and describe the factors that directly affect blood flow in the circulatory system.

Follow-Up Post Instructions

Respond to at least one peer or the instructor. Further the dialogue by providing more information and clarification.

Writing Requirements

  • Minimum of 2 posts (1 initial & 1 follow-up)
  • Minimum of 2 sources cited (assigned readings/online lessons and an outside source)
  • APA format for in-text citations and list of references

Gingrich importers provides the following pension plan information.

E20-6 Gingrich Importers provides the following pension plan information.

 

Fair value of pension plan assets, January 1, 2014

 

$2,400,000

Fair value of pension plan assets, December 31, 2014

 

2,725,000

Contributions to the plan in 2014

 

280,000

Benefits paid retirees in 2014

 

350,000

 

From the data above, compute the actual return on the plan assets for 2014.

Actual return on plan assets for 2014 $

 

 

Multi step income statement and adjusting entries

Multi step income statement and adjusting entries – the Boston trading company, whose accounting year ends on December 31, had the following normal balances in its general ledger at December 31:

 

Cash                                                                                      $13,000

Accounts Receivable                                                       $56,600

Inventory                                                                            $73,000

prepaid insurance                                                            $6000

office supplies                                                                   $4200

furniture and fixtures                                                     $21,000

accumulated depreciation –

                furniture and fixtures                                     $5000

delivery equipment                                                        $84,000

accumulated depreciation –

                delivery equipment                                        $12,000

Accounts Payable                                                             $41,000

long-term notes payable                                               $30,000

common stock                                                                   $75,000

retained earnings                                                             $51,400

sales revenue                                                                    $630,000

cost of goods sold                                                            $404,000

utilities expense                                                               $4800

sales salaries expense                                                    $82,000

delivery expense                                                              $10,800

advertising expense                                                       $5500

rent expense                                                                     $14,400

office salaries expense                                                  $56,000

income tax expense                                                       $9000

 

During the year, the accounting department prepared monthly statements but no adjusting entries were made in the journals and ledgers. Data for the year and procedures are as follows:

1.       prepaid insurance, December 31, was $1200

2.       depreciation expense on furniture and fixtures for the year was $1800

3.       depreciation expense on delivery equipment for the year was $13,000

4.       salaries payable, December 31 ($1800 sales and $1200 office) was $3000

5.       unused office supplies on December 31 were $1000

 

Required

a.       record the necessary adjusting entries at December 31

b.       prepare a multi step income statement for the year. Combine all operating expenses into one line on the income statement for selling, general and administrative expenses.

 

 

Speier company estimates that 240,000 direct labor hours will

P10-1B Speier Company estimates that 240,000 direct labor hours will be worked during the coming year, 2014, in the Assembly Department. On this basis, the following budgeted manufacturing overhead cost data are computed for the year.

 

Variable Overhead Costs

 

Fixed Overhead Costs

 

Indirect labor

$72,000

$0.30

Supervision

$75,600

$6,300

Indirect materials

48,000

$0.20

Depreciation

30,000

$2,500

Repairs

36,000

$0.15

Insurance

12,000

$1,000

Utilities

24,000

$0.10

Rent

9,600

$800

Lubricants

12,000

$0.05

Property taxes

6,000

$500

 

$192,000

$0.80

 

$133,200

 

 

It is estimated that direct labor hours worked each month will range from 18,000 to 24,000 hours.

 

During January, 20,000 direct labor hours were worked and the following overhead costs were incurred.

Variable Overhead Costs

 

Fixed Overhead Costs

Indirect labor

$6,200

 

Supervision

$6,300

Indirect materials

3,600

 

Depreciation

2,500

Repairs

2,300

 

Insurance

1,000

Utilities

1,700

 

Rent

850

Lubricants

1,050

 

Property taxes

500

 

$14,850

 

 

$11,150

 

 

Instructions:

a. Prepare a monthly flexible manufacturing overhead budget for each increment of 2,000 direct labor hours over the relevant range for the year ending December 31, 2014.
b.  Prepare a manufacturing overhead budget report for January.
c. Comment on management’s efficiency in controlling manufacturing overhead costs in January.

1.which pressure is different from the others?

Unit H Review—The Behavior of Gases 

 

Summary

Gases have different physical and chemical properties. All gases have properties that can be explained by the Ideal Gas Model of the Kinetic Molecular Theory. This theory states: Gas molecules have no volume compared to the total space they occupy. There are no attractions between gas molecules. Gas molecules are constantly moving and colliding.  All gas molecules have the same average kinetic energy (AKE) at the same temperature.

Gas pressure is a result of moving gas molecules colliding with the walls of the container. Such pressure can be measured using pressure gauges and pressure sensors. Air pressure, specifically, is measured with a barometer.

The gas laws are a series of mathematical equations, in agreement with the Ideal Gas Model, that can be used to make predictions of pressure, volume, temperature, and moles of molecules.

Real gases do behave very closely (within a few percent) of what the Ideal Gas Model predicts at temperatures and pressures normally encountered in a typical high school laboratory.  At low temperatures and high pressures, however, real gases can be made to condense to liquids. This is because real gas molecules do occupy some space and do have some attraction for each other. The nature of these attractions forms a major portion of the content of the next unit.

 

Gas Law

Equation

 

Gas Law

Equation

 

Boyle’s

P1V1 = P2V2

(at constant T and n)

Avogadro’s

V1  =  V2

n1      n2

(at constant P and T)

Charles’

V1  =  V2

T1     T2

(at constant P and n)

Ideal

PV = nRT

(R = 8.314 kPaL mol-1 · K-1)

Combined

P1V1  =  P2V2

T1         T2

(at constant n)

Dalton’s

Ptotal = P1 + P2 + P3 + …

 

 

Review Questions:

Multiple-Choice:

1.      Which pressure is different from the others?

            A.        790 mmHg

            B.        105 kPa

            C.        1.04 atm

            D.        Choices A, B, and C are all the same pressure.

 

2.      As the temperature of a gas increases, the kinetic energy of its particles

            A.        increases.

            B.        decreases.

            C.        remains the same.

 

3.      If the volume of a balloon expands, and the temperature remains constant, the pressure on the balloon

            A.        increases.

            B.        decreases.

            C.        remains the same.

 

4.      If the temperature of the air inside an automobile tire increases, but the tire does not expand, the pressure of the air inside the tire

            A.        increases.

            B.        decreases.

            C.        remains the same.

 

5.      A partially inflated weather balloon is released.  If the air temperature is constant, but the air pressure around the balloon drops as the balloon rises, the volume of the weather balloon

            A.        increases.

            B.        decreases.

            C.        remains the same.

 

6.      A chemist has a certain volume of gas in a balloon.  If the volume of gas decreases overnight, but the pressure remains constant, the temperature of the gas

            A.        increases.

            B.        decreases.

            C.        remains the same.

 

7.      All gases deviate from ideal gas behavior, particularly at high pressures and low

      temperatures.

            A.        True

            B.        False

 

8.      Temperatures below absolute zero are not possible.

            A.        True

            B.        False

9.      For an ideal gas  is a constant.

            A.        True

            B.        False

 

10.  In a mixture of gases, each gas behaves independently of the other gases in the mixture.

            A.        True

            B.        False

 

11.  Which temperature scale provides a direct measure of the average kinetic energy of a substance?

            A.        Celsius

            B.        Kelvin

            C.        Fahrenheit

            D.        Reamur

 

12.  What is the name of a device used to measure gas pressure?

            A.        Thermometer

            B.        Vaporometer

            C.        Calorimeter

            D.        Barometer

 

13.  Which law describes the relationship between the volume and temperature of a gas?

            A.        Boyle’s Law

            B.        Dalton’s Law

            C.        Charles’ Law

            D.        Gay-Lussac’s Law

 

14.  According to Avogadro’s Principle, equal ____ of gas at the same temperature and pressure contain equal numbers of particles.

            A.        masses                         B.        volumes

            C.        samples                        D.        areas

 

15.  The individual molecules of gas at STP

            A.        never collide.

            B.        all have the same speed.

            C.        travel at different speeds.

D.        have a constant speed.

 

16.  If kinetic energy is added to a sample of gas in a rigid container, which of the following takes place?

            A.        The temperature increases.

            B.        The pressure increases.

            C.        The molecules of gas move faster.

            D.        All the above occur.

 

17.  If two different gases have the same kinetic energy,

            A.        the gas with more mass has a greater velocity.

            B.        the gas with more mass has a lower velocity.

            C.        the gases have the same velocity, regardless of mass.

            D.        the gas with more mass has a higher temperature.

 

18.  Gases deviate from ideal behavior because gas particles

            A.        are in continuous motion.

            B.        move randomly in straight lines.

            C.        have different amounts of kinetic energy.

            D.        have some attraction for each other.

 

19.  When a closed tank of air is heated, the density of the air (neglecting any expansion of the tank)

            A.        increases.

            B.        decreases.

            C.        remains the same.

 

20.  Which of the following is NOT one of the postulates of the Kinetic-Molecular Theory of gases?

            A.        Gas molecules are in a state of constant, random motion.

B.         The diameter of a gas molecule is large when compared with the distance between gas molecules.

            C.        There is no force of attraction between gas molecules.

            D.        The temperature of a gas is a reflection of the average kinetic energy of the gas.

            E.         Choices A, B, C, and D are all postulates of the Kinetic-Molecular Theory.

 

 

 

Problems:

 

21.  59.7 cm3 of helium gas at 95.0 kPa is expanded to 100.0 cm3 at constant temperature.  What is the new pressure on the gas?

 

 

 

 

22.  Oxygen gas is collected over water at a temperature of 25.0°C and a pressure of 746.8 mmHg.  What is the pressure due to dry oxygen gas?

 

 

 

 

23.  What pressure will be exerted by 7.99 g of butane, C4H10, if the gas is in a container measuring 1.50 L and is at 27°C?

 

 

 

 

24.  5.18 L of nitrogen gas at 76.0°C are cooled to 6.0°C at constant pressure.  Calculate the new volume of the gas.

 

 

 

 

25.  What is the molar mass of a gas if 372.0 mL has a mass of 0.800 g at 99.8°C and 106.6 kPa?

 

 

 

 

26.  What volume of CO2(g) is produced when 1.05 kg of ethane, C2H6(g), is burned?  The temperature is 24.0°C and the pressure is 745.0 mmHg.

 

2 C2H6(g)  +  7 O2(g)  ¾®  4 CO2(g)  +  6 H2O(g)

 

 

 

 

Unit I Review—Liquids, Solids and Phase Changes (optional material in red)

 

Summary:

There are not only intermolecular attractions between molecules in the gas phase, but those forces of attraction are extremely important for liquids and solids.

The Kinetic-Molecular Theory is fundamental to the understanding of matter. The Kelvin temperature scale is an indicator of relative molecular motions, with the particles having no motion at absolute zero.

Intermolecular forces are called van der Waals forces: London dispersion forces and dipole-dipole forces. A special case of dipole-dipole forces is hydrogen bonding, which have higher than expected melting and boiling points, enhanced solubility, unique molecular shapes, etc.

Ionic bonding is the result of a 3-dimensional array of positive and negative ions attracting each other, resulting in very high melting and boiling points.

Metallic bonding occurs because the valence electrons in metal atoms are free to move to any of the empty orbitals in the crystal and, therefore, belong to the whole crystal rather than just between two atoms. 

Substances that have network covalent bonding are generally very hard, strong, brittle, and have extremely high melting and boiling points.  Most do not conduct electricity.

In order to undergo a phase change, the attractions between whole particles (atoms, ions, or molecules) in the substance must overcome interparticle attractions (van der Waals, metallic bonds, ionic bonds or covalent bonds).

 

Vocabulary:

absolute zero

deposition

dipole-dipole forces

hydrogen bond

hydrogen bond

intermolecular forces

interparticle attractions

isoelectronic

lattice energy

London dispersion forces

normal boiling point

sublimation

van der Waals forces

vapor

vapor pressure

vaporization

 

Review Questions:

 

Multiple-Choice:

 

1.      Substances that are liquids at room temperature or below are

            A.        ionic.

            B.        nonpolar covalent molecular.

            C.        metallic.

            D.        covalent network.

 

2.      Crystals such as diamonds (very hard, high melting point, nonconductors) are classified as

            A.        ionic crystals.

            B.        covalent molecular crystals.

            C.        covalent network crystals.

            D.        metallic crystals.

 

3.      Metallic crystals characteristically have

            A.        good electric conductivity.

            B.        great hardness.

            C.        low melting points.

            D.        brittleness.

 

 

 

4.      Because of the hydrogen bonds in water, the hydrogen atom of one water molecule may be

            A.        weakly attracted to the oxygen of a second water molecule.

            B.        weakly attracted to the hydrogen of a second water molecule.

            C.        strongly attracted to the second hydrogen of its own molecule.

            D.        strongly attracted to the oxygen of a second water molecule.

 

5.      As ice is heated from a lower temperature towards its melting point, the hydrogen bonds

            A.        get stronger.

            B.        stretch.

            C.        increase in number.

            D.        cause the formation of hexagonal patterns.

 

6.      What is thought to cause dispersion forces?

            A.        attraction between ions

            B.        motion of electrons

C.        differences in electronegativity

            D.        the formation of hexagonal patterns

 

7.      Why is hydrogen bonding only possible with hydrogen?

A.         because hydrogen is the only atom whose nucleus is not shielded by electrons when it is involved in a covalent bond

            B.        because hydrogen is the only atom that is the same size as an oxygen atom

            C.        because hydrogen has the highest electronegativity of any element in the periodic table

 

8.      What is the basis of a metallic bond?

            A.        the attraction of metal ions for mobile electrons

            B.        the attraction between neutral metal atoms

            C.        the neutralization of protons by electrons

            D.        the attraction of oppositely charged ions

 

9.      What occurs during the dissolving of an ionic crystal?

            A.        Ions separate from molecules.

            B.        Molecules surround ions.

            C.        Molecules bind covalently to molecules.

            D.        Ionic compounds are formed.

 

10.  Why are two nonpolar substances able to dissolve each other?

            A.        There is no repulsive force between them.

            B.        They combine to produce a polar substance.

            C.        There is no attractive force between them.

            D.        Nonpolar molecules cannot dissolve in each other.

 

11.  Chlorine is a gas, bromine is a liquid, and iodine a solid because of differences in the strength of their

            A.        hydrogen bonds.

            B.        dispersion forces.

            C.        dipole interactions.

D.        polar bonds.

 

 

 

 

 

12.  The high surface  tension of water is due to the

            A.        small size of water molecules.

            B.        high kinetic energy of water molecules.

            C.        hydrogen bonding between water molecules.

            D.        covalent bonds in water molecules.

 

13.  It has been said, “There are forces of attraction between molecules in all chemical systems.”  Which of the following experimental observations supports this statement?   

            A.        Gases can be condensed to form liquids.

            B.        Solids are very difficult to compress.

            C.        Liquids have an indefinite shape.

            D.        Not all solids are ionic crystals.

 

14.  Ionic solids

            A.        are soft and have low melting points.

            B.        melt to form liquids that conduct electricity.

            C.        are malleable.

            D.        conduct electricity.

 

15.  Solid sodium metal and molten sodium chloride conduct electricity because both contain

            A.        mobile electrons.

            B.        mobile ions.

            C.        active metals, which are good conductors.

            D.        mobile charged particles.

 

 

For questions #16 to 26, write the letter of the bond or attractive force, chosen from the list below, that is most closely associated with that compound or phrase.

A.                ionic bond

B.                 network covalent bonds

C.                 dipole-dipole attractions

D.                hydrogen bonds

E.                 metallic bond

F.                  covalent bonds

G.                dispersion forces

 

16.  Are weak enough to permit solid iodine to sublime readily upon heating.

 

17.  Al(s)

 

18.  Bond noble gas atoms in the liquid phase.

 

19.  Responsible for the extremely high melting point of diamond (above 3500º C).

 

20.  Link the atoms in a molecule of a diatomic gaseous element.

 

21.  Allows methanol to be infinitely soluble in ethanol.

 

22.  SiO2(s)

 

23.  Positive ions immersed in a “sea of mobile (delocalized) electrons.”

 

24.  This substance will not conduct as a solid, but will conduct as a liquid or in solution.

 

25.  OCl2

 

 

26.  (diagram)

 

 

           

27.  Which of the following processes requires the least energy?

            A.        Breaking the bond between Na+ and Cl in NaCl.

            B.        Breaking the bond between H and Cl in HCl.

            C.        Separating two CO molecules.

            D.        Separating two H2O molecules.

 

28.  Which of the following transformations is sublimation?

A.   Solid ® Gas

B.   Gas ® Solid

C.   Liquid ® Solid

D.   Solid ® Liquid

 

29.  Using intermolecular force theory, explain why a substance will change from a gas to a liquid if the temperature is lowered sufficiently.

 

30.  In terms of electron mobility and electronegativity, explain why Na(s) is a very good conductor of electric current while NaCl(s) is a nonconductor.

Unit I—Additional Material

 

Exercises: Phase Changes (Use after Section I.35)

1.      Why is H2O(g) usually called water vapor?

 

 

2.      What is the difference between evaporation and boiling?

 

 

3.      How would it be possible to boil water at room temperature?

 

 

4.      When water is heated to boil, tiny bubbles form on the bottom surface.  What gas is inside the bubbles a) initially and b) at full boil?

 

 

5.      a) If we have no frost or built up ice in a freezer and introduce water vapour into the freezer (by opening it on a humid day) what will happen?
b) Conversely, I once put a unwrapped snowball in my mother’s freezer in January and by July it was almost shriveled in size to a small pea. What happened?.

 

 

6.      People will often refer to the boiling point of water as 100°C.  What is actually meant by this?

7.      Some non-chemists have argued that the ocean must be less than 10 000 years old based on the following logic:
a) water carrying salts flows to the ocean from rivers running over mineral rich rocks
b) this water and mineral salt solution flows into the sea
c) only water evaporates from the oceans (the salt is left behind)
d) thus the salt concentration of the ocean should increase yearly and the measured salinity of the ocean is much less than if the ocean has been here for millions and billions of years.
Using LeChatelier’s principle and the reversibility of dissolving and salt crystallization explain how to respond to this charge.

8.      Consider the following reversible reaction:

                  N2O4(g)à 2 NO2 (g)

 

If we add in more NO2 we’ll force the reaction further to the _____. Explain using LeChatelier’s Principle. What would happen if added more N2O4?

 

 

 

 

 

Michaels corporation expects earnings before

Michaels Corporation expects earnings before interest and taxes to be $40,000 for this period. Assuming an ordinary tax rate of 40 percent, compute the firm’s earnings after taxes and earnings available for common stockholders (earnings after taxes and preferred stock dividends, if any) under the following conditions:

 

a. The firm pays $10,000 in interest.

b. The firm pays $10,000 in preferred stock dividends. 

Lab four –audio amplifiers | Electrical Engineering homework help

 

 

Lab Four –Audio Amplifiers

 

 

 

 

 

ECT246 Electronic Systems III with Lab

 

 

 

DeVryUniversity Online

 

Part A: Audio Amps

 

TCO #4:

Given an audio amplifier application that uses an integrated amplifier, examine the overall amplifier’s performance and verify the operation by using suitable input and output circuits.

 

Investigation of the LM386 Audio Amplifier takes place during week 4.  The LM386 is a versatile special purpose op-amp used to amplifier audio frequencies.  The device is contained in a single 8-pin dip package and has a gain of up to 200 and a power output of 1-watt.

 

A.   Use an Internet search utility, such as Google, find an audio amplifier such as a LM386 download the specification sheet and determine its general characteristics such as its general description, the package type and pin configuration.

 

a.    Usethe Internet to search for a LM386 data sheet.  Try www.national.com or www.datasheetarchive.com.  Print the datasheet.

b.    From the data sheet find the following information and record.

What are its general characteristics?

Features

Applications

Package type

Pin configuration

 

 

B.   Use the specification sheet to determine its electrical characteristics and operating values.

 

a.    Record the electrical values of the LM386.

Absolute Maximum Ratings:

          Supply Voltage

          Package Dissipation

          Input Voltage

Electrical Characteristics:

Operating supply voltage

Output power

Voltage gain

Bandwidth

Input Resistance

 

 

 

 

C.   Using information from the data sheet or other sources and an application such as Multisim, Visio, or a CAD program draw the schematic and verify the component values of an audio amplifier application using the device.

 

a.    Using the Typical Applications section or other source find an amplifier with a gain equal to 20.

b.    Use an application such as Multisim, Visio, or a CAD program to create the circuit schematic.  Label the schematic, LM386 Audio Amplifier

c.    Label the pin numbers on the LM386 and give each component a name and value.

d.   Explain briefly how the gain of the LM386 can be changed.

 

D.   Construct the audio amplifier on your breadboardwith various gains (20 and 200).  Using a frequency generator as an input, verify the amplification of the audio amplifier. Use 10mV peak as the input signal and keeping all the component connecting wired as short as possible. Also keep all the components close together on the breadboard.

 

a.    For measurements purposes, prototype an amplifier similar to the one below. Remember keep all component connecting wires as short as possible, and keep all components as close to the audio amplifier as possible. The 10mV peak input is set between the 1k resistor and C6.

 

b.    Complete the tablebelow.

 

R         C­­5                 Expected      Measured

                                                                   Gain            Gain

 

          —       —                          _____                   _____         _____                   _____

 

                               _____                   _____         _____                   _____

 

          —                            _____                   _____         _____                   _____

 

c.    Beginning with pin 1 an 8 open and the frequency generator set to 10mVpat 1 kHz, use the oscilloscope to measure the voltage values.  Calculate the gain of the amplifier, .  Record the results on the sheet. 

d.   Continue this procedure until you have determined the three gain values.

e.    Were there any problems with the different gain values?  If so, explain the symptoms and how to correct the problem.

 

 

E.   Determine and plot the audio amplifier’s frequency response.  Determine midband gain, 3-dB bandwidth, critical frequencies and roll-off rate. Compare the results to the data sheet.

 

a.    Using the information above, set the gain of the amplifier to 20.

b.    Set the output of the frequency generator to a sine wave with amplitude of 100 mV at 1 (one) Hz.

c.    Complete the table below.

 

f (Hz)                     Gain

    

          1                 _____                   _____                   _____

          10               _____                   _____                   _____

          100             _____                   _____                   _____

          1k               _____                   _____                   _____

          10k             _____                   _____                   _____

          100k           _____                   _____                   _____

          500k           _____                   _____                   _____

 

d.   With the frequency set to 1 Hz, use the oscilloscope to measure the above values and calculate the gain.  Note that very low or high frequencies may be difficult to measure.

e.    Continue changing the input frequency by a power of 10 (10, 100, etc.) until you reach 500kHz.

f.     Use a piece of graph paper to plot the results.  A work sheet can be found in Doc Sharing, week 4 — “graph_paper.doc”.

 

 

F.    Connect an input circuit such as a frequency generator and a microphone and a load such as a speaker verify the operation and troubleshoot any problems.

 

a.    Prototype the advance amplifier circuit for this step.  Set the gain to 20.

b.    Connect a frequency generator set to a sine wave at 400 mV peak and 100 Hz to the input of the circuit.  Connect an 8-ohm speaker to the output of the circuit.  Set  to ithighest value.

c.    Write down your observations.Record the information below.

 

 

 

d.   Apply power and record what you hear.  Slowly decrease  and record any changes.  Continue to decrease.  Use an oscilloscope to observe the output signal.  What is happening to the output waveform?

e.    Change the input frequency to 1 k Hz and 10 kHz and record the change.

f.     Change the frequency generator to a square wave and repeat the steps above.  Record the results.

g.   Remove the frequency generator and connect a dynamic microphone to the input.  Test the circuit and record the results.  Vary  for maximum output.  Can you get maximum gain from the circuit without oscillation?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Part B – More LM386

 

1.   The LM386 may be used to amplify voice inputs.  Dynamic or Condenser (Electret) microphone are two common input devices.  Dynamic microphones can be connected directly to the input of the LM386 amplifier and uses resistance variation within the microphone to convert voice fluctuations into small electrical signals.  The condenser type microphone use capacitance to detect these changes and requires a bias voltage applied to the microphone.

 

Mic Advanced schematic

 

The specifications of a typical condenser microphone are shown below.

 

FET

2 to 10V DC

1K ohm impedance

50 to 8 KHz

 

Using the information above, create a bias circuit for the microphone.  Draw the schematic and label each component.

 

 

 

          1                 56mV          320mV        5.71            15.1

          10               64mV          320mV        5                 14

          100             112mV        1.28V          11.42          21.15

          1k               112mV        1.28V          11.42          21.15

          10k             160mV        1.20V          7.5              17.5

          100k                                                  3                 9.54

After plotting the graph we need to go below 100 hz and read the frequency that the gain is 8.1. This is f1

Then go above 1k until the gain is 8.1 and read that frequency. This is f2

This is semi log paper, note the bottom horizontal scale is frequency, and always gets 10 times larger on the next decade. There are no zeros on the graph.  10^0 = 1 so that is the first number, 10^1 = 10 so we jump from counting 1’s to counting 10’s, for example 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10, 20,30 etc.

The vertical scale is gain in decibels and uses a linear scale.

The point plotted is a frequency of 10 hertz and a gain of 7 db.

Widespread adoption of sustainable consumption at the global level

Widespread adoption of sustainable consumption at the global level will

not be easy because:

A.sustainable consumption requires the eradication of poverty which

requires that poor people increase their consumption of certain essential

resources to improve the quality of their lives and these resources are

no longer available.

B.sustainable consumption requires that the consumption patterns of

people in highly developed countries must change to allow for the

eradication of poverty and such changes in the lifestyles of people in

highly developed countries is a challenge.

C.sustainable consumption requires that everyone embrace voluntary

simplicity on a compulsory basis and while this is supported by

politicians, economists are not in support.

D.sustainable consumption requires the excessive reliance on global

resources that will result in a tragedy of the commons

 

 

What is a potential shortcoming in achieving environmental justice?

A.It is more expensive to clean-up hazardous waste in low-income

communities because of the lack of technical skill in these communities.

B.Residents of low-income and minority communities have less involvement

in the political process and may not even be aware of their exposure to

increased levels of pollutants.

C.Minority communities tend to get more cooperation from government

agencies that can help them.

D.Too many programs exist to serve the environmental justice needs of

low-income and minority communities and these are often in competition

with each other making it hard to accomplish the goals.

 

 

A type of sustainable consumption which recognizes that individual

happiness and quality of life are not necessarily linked to the

accumulation of material goods but rather that a person’s values and

character define that individual more than how many things he or she own

is known as:

A. environmental ethics

B. sustainable development

C. environmental justice

D. A deep ecology worldview.

E. Child labor.

F. voluntary simplicity

G. Sustainable consumption.

 

 

Why is a risk analysis usually performed in solving environmental

problems?

A.To solicit public opinion about how evidence should be interpreted

when selection a course of action.

B.To analyze the potential effect of an intervention versus doing

nothing.

C.To monitor the initial assessment and modeling of the problem.

D.To provide public awareness and endorsement.

 

 

Which of the following statements associated with poverty is CORRECT?

1) Poverty is defined as having a per person income of less than $2 per

day, expressed in U.S. dollars adjusted for purchasing power.

2) The number of people living in poverty has been steadily declining and

today less than one billion people live in poverty worldwide.

3) Poverty is a condition in which people are unable to meet their basic

needs for food, clothing, shelter, education, or health.

A.1 only

B.2 only

C.3 only

D.Both 1 and 3 apply as descriptions of poverty.

 

 

Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the nature of natural resources

and their use by people?

A.Slowing down the rate of population growth as well as reducing

resource consumption levels will allow for more time to develop

technological advances to find alternatives to non-renewable

B.Even renewable resources must be used in a manner that allows for them

to replenish or replace themselves and thus these resources should more

accurately be considered potentially renewable and not be overexploited.

C.Developing countries are often faced with the difficult choice between

exploiting natural resources to provide for their expanding populations

in the short term (to pay for food or to cover debts) or conserving those

resources for future generations.

D.Poverty does not impose any pressures on natural resources as the poor

use barely any resources at all and what they do use is used very

carefully and wisely for long term survival.

 

 

tion 8 of 25

4.0 Points

Which of the following is the BEST example of sustainable consumption?

A.Constructing a small house on farmland on the edge of town and

carpooling to work.

B.Flying to the Bahamas for a weekend getaway.

C.Preparing a meal at home with food bought at the local farmers market.

D.Purchasing five pairs of shoes at a local minority owned business.

 

 

How does science obtain knowledge about the world?

A.By an interactive process of experimentation, which refines hypotheses

until they are finally proven to be the absolute truth.

B.By relying on scientific authorities and the massive amount of

knowledge already obtained to explain new data.

C.By systematically gathering evidence and discarding potential

explanations that do not fit the evidence, and refining those that do fit

the evidence.

D.By conducting experiments designed to support hypotheses as being

correct beyond reasonable doubt.

 

 

All of the following statements describe environmental science EXCEPT:

A.The goal of environmental science is to try to establish general

principles about how the natural world functions.

B.Environmental scientists seek to develop viable solutions to

environmental problems that are based as much as possible on scientific

knowledge.

C.Since environmental problems are generally complex and scientific

understanding of them is often less complete, environmental scientists

are often called on to reach scientific consensus before the data are

complete.

D.No exceptions, all of the above statements describe environmental

science.

 

 

Which of the following interact to promote sustainable development?

 

1 Economically viable decisions

2 Socially equitable decisions

3 Environmentally sound decisions

4 High rate of resources use

5 Rapid population growth

A.1 and 3

B.2 and 4

C.1, 2, and 3

D.3,4, and 5

 

 

What does the phrase “environmental sustainability” imply?

A.The actions of humans directly impact the wellbeing of the natural

environment.

B.Future generations will have the resources necessary for quality of

life.

C.A shared global responsibility is necessary for conservation

practices.

D.All of the above are implied by environmental sustainability.

 

 

If economic decisions are to be sustainable they will have to consider

which of the following?

A.political costs

B.environmental costs

C.societal costs

D.environmental and societal costs both must be considered

 

 

What is meant by food insecurity?

A.The potential decline in agricultural productivity due to reduced soil

fertility as a result of multi-cropping.

B.The condition in which people live with chronic hunger and

malnutrition likely due to poverty.

C.The increased pressures on food production as a result of increases in

global population.

D.The potential decline in agricultural productivity due to conservation

tillage.

 

 

The use of goods and services that satisfy basic human needs, improve the

quality of life but minimize resource use is referred to as:

A.sustainable consumption

B.master planned communities

C.environmental justice

D.organic agriculture

 

 

stion 18 of 25

4.0 Points

The deep ecology world view most closely resembles the:

A.Western worldview

B.utilitarian conservationist attitude

C.frontier attitude

D.biocentric preservationist attitude

 

 

In order to estimate human impact on the environment we can

A.multiply the number of people times affluence per person times

resources used and wastes produced (I=P x A x T)

B.multiply resource depletion times number of years divided by number of

people (I = R x Y ÷ P)

C.multiply birth rate times consumption patterns divided by available

resources (I= B x C ÷ R)

D.Divide number of people by resources needed and wastes produced (I = P

÷ T)

 

 

Global sustainable development depends on eradication of poverty in the

developing world. What is the consequence of this?

A.Developing countries will consume at the same levels as developed

countries today.

B.Poor people will need to move to cities increasing urban air

pollution.

C.Developing countries will be forced into deforestation in order to

meet their economic needs.

D.Poor people in developing countries need to increase their consumption

of certain essential resources.

 

 

A journalist reports on what Garrett Hardin (in 1968) referred to as a

“Tragedy of the Commons”? The media story concerns:

A.the technology divide that exists between the social classes of

poverty and elite

B.the environmental costs that everyone must pay in the long run due to

individual exploitation of resources for short-term gains.

C.a disaster that happened in the park

D.the environmental costs that a widespread natural disaster brings to

all walks of life

 

 

In order for a country to progress from a less developed country (LDC) to

a moderately developed country (MDC), the country would have to:

A.increase rate of population growth.

B.move from industry to agricultural economy base.

C.raise the per-capita income.

D.increase their unskilled labor force.

 

 

A state agency has contacted you to do a scientific assessment of kudzu

in a nature preserve in southern Georgia. They are concerned about the

effects of the non-native invasive vine on a small rare plant that grows

on the forest floor in the preserve, but which is found nowhere else in

the state. Kudzu is only growing in the east side of the preserve because

it hasn’t yet had time to invade further. In order to assess the effects

of kudzu on the rare plant, you set up the following experiment:

 

Site 1. On the east side of the park with the kudzu, you set up ten 1m x

1m plots on the forest floor. In each plot you count the number of

individuals of the rare plant.

Site 2. On the west side of the park without the kudzu, you set up ten 1m

x 1m plots of the forest floor. In each plot you count the number of

individuals of the rare plant.

 

Which of the following represents the hypothesis that you are testing

with this experiment?

A.Kudzu will eventually grow on the west side of the park.

B.Kudzu will kill off the trees in the preserve by strangling them.

C.Kudzu should be removed from the preserve because it is killing the

rare plant.

D.Kudzu is negatively affecting populations of the rare plant in the

preserve.

 

 

A personal perspective based on a collection of basic values and beliefs

about how the environment works, that helps us make sense of our place

and purpose in it, and determine right and wrong behaviors describes:

A.Environmental ethics

B.Environmental worldview

C.Voluntary simplicity

D.Deep ecology

 

 

All of the following statements regarding the need for environmental

justice and the challenges in accomplishing its goals are true EXCEPT:

A.Research evidence suggests that minority communities tend to follow

NIMBY ideals and thus get less cooperation from government agencies that

could help them.

B.Residents of low-income and minority communities have less involvement

in the political process and may not even be aware of their exposure to

increased levels of pollutants.

C.Many studies indicate that hazardous waste facilities, sanitary

landfills, and incinerators are more likely to be located in low-income

and minority communities.

D.Currently, we have little scientific evidence showing to what extent a

polluted environment is responsible for the disproportionate health

problems of poor and minority communities.

 

 

Saint leo gba440 module 5 midterm exam (latest)

Question

Module 5 Midterm Exam

1. Question :

Olive oil made in Italy and sold in the United States is an example of which of the following?

Global brand

U.S. export

U.S. import

Standardized product

Question 2. Question :

Levi’s Jeans made in the United States and sold in Russia are an example of which of the following?

U.S. export

Outsourced product

Globally licensed product

U.S. import

Question 3. Question :

Denationalization refers to ________.

a loss of sovereignty among nations

national boundaries becoming less relevant

cooperation between nations to reduce trade barriers

attempts by international organizations to resolve trade conflicts

Question 4. Question :

Which of the following is an example of the globalization of production?

Canadian consumers buy foods imported from Australia

A Chinese company sells textiles to European car makers

A U.S. company builds a manufacturing facility in India

A Swiss watch manufacturer builds a manufacturing facility in Switzerland

Question 5. Question :

Two major forces that underlie the expansion of globalization are ________ and ________.

deregulation of tourism; the rise of nationalism

economic interdependence; the decline of international organizations

trade barriers; political unrest

falling barriers to trade and investment; technological innovation

Question 6. Question :

A limit placed on the quantity of an imported product is known as which of the following?

Import sanction

Tariff

Embargo

Nontariff barrier

Question 7. Question :

All of the following represent examples of regional trade agreements except ________.

WTO

EU

APEC

NAFTA

Question 8. Question :

Last year, Sabrina Shin started a business selling all types of spices and hot sauces. The business is small but this entrepreneur’s dreams are big. Given limited demand and sales fluctuations in the domestic market, Sabrina has been considering going international; however, she has little information, many doubts, and no guidance. Which of the following can help Sabrina reach consumers in different corners of the world quickly and inexpensively?

Intranet

Extranet

GPS

Internet

Question 9. Question :

For 75 years, from the start of the First World War to the end of the Cold War, there was a geographic divide between ________, and an ideological divide between ________.

North and South; protectionism and socialism

North and South; regionalism and globalization

East and West; regionalism and globalization

East and West; communism and capitalism

Question 10. Question :

Which of the following terms is used to refer to widespread job turnover throughout an economy?

Redeployment

Churning

Wage differentials

Attrition spectrum

Question 11. Question :

Which of the following makes the world market more accessible for companies that sell traditional products by lessening the cost and difficulties associated with global communication?

Technology

Franchising opportunities

Licensing

Financial capital

Question 12. Question :

Which of the following terms is used to refer to the positive or negative evaluations, feelings, and tendencies that individuals harbor toward objects or concepts?

Customs

Attitudes

Manners

Values

Question 13. Question :

________ refers to the replacement of one culture’s traditions, folk heroes, and artifacts with substitutes from another.

Cultural imperialism

Acculturation

Cultural attrition

Cultural immersion

Question 14. Question :

Which of the following terms is used to refer to behavior that is shared by a heterogeneous group or by several groups?

Manners

Lingua franca

Popular custom

Folk custom

Question 15. Question :

Which of the following terms is used to refer to the process of ranking people into social layers or classes?

Social status

Social stratification

Social group

Social mobility

Question 16. Question :

A Chinese business establishes an office in Hong Kong. It conducts business locally with vendors and customers who live in Hong Kong. Which of the following would be most effective as the company’s main business dialect?

Taiwanese

Guanxi

Mandarin

Cantonese

Question 17. Question :

All of the following are dimensions developed by Hofstede for examining cultures except ________.

individualism versus collectivism

power distance

uncertainty avoidance

caste system versus class system

Question 18. Question :

Sid Maxwell is head of legal affairs for Hudson Inc., a producer of animal figurines that include an embedded software program that makes animal sounds. Hudson is expanding its market to include parts of Asia and Maxwell is concerned about reports of software piracy in the region.Which of the following could Hudson obtain to protect its rights to the proprietary software embedded in the figurines?

Trademark

Patent

Copyright

Users license

Question 19. Question :

Global Trading, LLC, is a distributor of computer software and hardware, steel and copper scrap, and telephone and electric utility equipment.Involved in three very different types of industries, the company faces many types of risks in its global business. Global Trading just learned that the government in one country in which it does business has taken over the entire electric utility industry. The government’s actions are an example of ________.

confiscation

globalization

expropriation

nationalization

Question 20. Question :

Susan Smith works in marketing at Reconditioned Refrigerators (R&R), a global manufacturing company. Susan knows that to advance into upper management she must gain broader experience and was recently told that she can choose from several locations in which R&R is active for her first international assignment. Susan knows little about other nations, their cultures, and their political systems, so she has embarked on an ambitious research project to make an informed decision. Susan’s personal political beliefs are congruent with those of a democracy. Susan’s beliefs are most likely reflected in which of the following political ideologies?

Anarchism

Pluralism

Totalitarianism

Socialism

Points Received: 0 of 1

Question 21. Question :

An international human rights organization recommends that its member countries review their human rights policies on a periodic basis to ensure that their governments are upholding ethical standards for the treatment of prisoners. Which of the following represents the most effective reasoning in support of the organization’s recommendation?

Ethical policies and practices tend to remain consistent within the same country over time.

Nations should only enforce ethical standards that have been approved by other nations.

Nations should enforce those ethical standards that have been adopted in other nations.

Ethical standards change over time, so national policies should be updated as necessary.

Question 22. Question :

A bootleg Prada backpack that costs $500 in New York but sells for $100 in Rome is an example of which of the following?

Patent infringement

Pirated product

Copyright violation

Standardized product

Question 23. Question :

Which of the following legal systems is based on a detailed set of written rules and statutes that constitute a legal code?

International law

Civil law

Tribal law

Common law

Question 24. Question :

Which of the following is the broadest measure of economic development?

Gross domestic product (GDP)

Purchasing power parity (PPP)

Gross national product (GNP)

Human development index (HDI)

Question 25. Question :

The pattern of imports and exports that occurs in the absence of trade barriers is called ________.

an embargo

protectionism

infant industry

free trade

Question 26. Question :

Which of the following is an example of an economic motive for nations’ attempts to influence international trade?

Pursue strategic trade policy

Protect jobs

Respond to “unfair” trade

Preserve national security

Question 27. Question :

Which of the following created renewed determination to further reduce barriers to trade?

Consumer demand

Advancements in telecommunications

Portfolio investment trends

Uruguay Round of trade negotiations

Question 28. Question :

Economic integration whereby countries remove all barriers to trade and the movement of labor and capital between themselves and erect a common trade policy against nonmembers is called a(n) ________.

economic union

customs union

common market

political union

Question 29. Question :

The international bond market consists of all bonds sold by issuing companies, governments, or other organizations ________.

within their own countries

to London banks

outside their own countries

to developing nations only

Question 30. Question :

Sandy Smith, vice president of marketing for a large consumer products company, will soon travel to Colombia to spearhead an effort to increase her company’s presence there. Sandy is concerned about her safety and has contacted a risk-assessment service for advice. Which of the following is most likely to assist Sandy in keeping a low profile?

Dressing like the locals whenever possible and avoiding expensive jewelry

Participating in public demonstrations attended by large local crowds

Streamlining financial transactions by paying for expenses with large denominations

Maintaining the ability to cover unexpected expenses by carrying a large amount of cash

Question 31. Question :

Explain the concept of culture. Why is it important to avoid ethnocentricity and gain cultural literacy?

Question 32. Question :

Explain the concept of balance of payments and describe its two major components.