PERSUASIVE SPEECH OUTLINE

Persuasive Speech Outline

Overview

In this assignment you will outline a persuasive speech. The speech and self-review are due next week.

Instructions

1. Select either Topic A or Topic B for your persuasive speech.
   • Topic A: Should Children Under the Age of 10 Own Cell Phones?
   • Topic B: Should Self-Driving Cars Be Legal?
2. Create an outline or speaking notes in Microsoft Word.
   • Download the Sample Outline [DOCX], which provides guidance for the structure of an outline.
   • Focus your speech on 2–3 main points so you’ll stay within the 4-minute time limit.
3. Submit the completed outline in a Microsoft Word document.

Requirements

Your assignment will be graded according to the following criteria:

• The outline is complete and on topic.
• The outline provides solid flow for the speech.
• The outline is clear and free from spelling and grammar issues.
• You must incorporate at least two quality resources.

This course requires the use of Strayer Writing Standards. For assistance and information, please refer to the Strayer Writing Standards link in the left-hand menu of your course. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.

The specific course learning outcome associated with this assignment is:

• Outline a speech using a structured flow and proper spelling and grammar.

Question1

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Which ASB balance assertion is of the most importance to auditors for long-term liabilities?

Select one:

a. Existence

b. Rights & Obligations

c. Valuation

d. Completeness

Question2

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Which of the following management assertions for long-term liabilities is related to the ASB balance assertion of completeness?

Select one:

a. All material long-term liabilities are recorded.

b. Disclosures of maturities for the next five years are accurate and adequate.

c. Terms, conditions, and restrictions relating to noncurrent debt are adequately disclosed.

d. New long-term liabilities and debt extinguishments are properly authorized.

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In the audit of notes payable, an auditor testing the ASB balance assertion of accuracy and valuation most likely would

Select one:

a. Select a sample of notes payable and vouch cash receipt to the bank statement.

b. Read directors’ and finance committee’s minutes for authorization of financing transactions.

c. Select a sample of paid notes and trace interest expense to the general ledger account.

d. Select a sample of paid notes and recalculate interest expense for the period under audit.

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During an audit of an entity’s stockholders’ equity accounts, the auditor determines whether there are restrictions on retained earnings resulting from loans, agreements, or state law. This audit procedure most likely is intended to verify the ASB presentation and disclosure assertion of

Select one:

a. Completeness

b. Understandability

c. Occurrence.

d. Rights and Obligations.

Question5

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In confirming with an outside agent, such as a financial institution, that the agent is holding investment securities in the client’s name, an auditor most likely gathers evidence in support of ASB balance assertion of existence and

Select one:

a. Rights & obligations

b. Completeness

c. Valuation

d. Accuracy

Question6

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The focus of controls in the finance and investment cycle is on

Select one:

a. Physical security of assets.

b. Prenumbered documents

c. Computer controls over transactions.

d. Proper authorizations and competent personnel.

Question7

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Keeping track of securities owners for payment of interest or dividends is usually done by the company’s

Select one:

a. Transfer Agent

b. Register

c. Broker

d. Treasurer

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Records of stock and bond certificates are usually maintained by the company’s

Select one:

a. Treasurer

b. Transfer Agent

c. Chief Financial Officer

d. Register

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A related party is a person or entity that

Select one:

a. Is a member of the company’s management.

b. Does business with the company.

c. Has a family tie to a management member.

d. Can exert significant influence over or be influenced by the company.

Question10

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To whom should written representations be addressed?

a. Auditors

b. Board of directors

c. Client

d. Stockholders

Question11

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If auditors are appointed on January 3, 2012, the date of the financial statements is December 31, 2012, the date of the auditors’ report is February 7, 2013 and the audit report release date is March 3, 2013, what is the appropriate date of the written representations?

a. January 3, 2012

b. December 31, 2012

c. February 7, 2013

d. March 3, 2013

Question12

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Orange Corporation was audited for the year ended December 31. The audit was completed on January 25; prior to the release of the report, auditors learned of a two-for-one stock split on February 1. If dual dating is used, what are the proper dates for the auditors’ reports?

a. December 31 and January 25

b. January 25 and February 1

c. January 25 and February 15

d. February 1 and February 25

Question13

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Interim testing normally occurs between what two dates?

Select one:

a. Date of the financial statements and audit report release date.

b. End of the year under audit and date of the auditors’ report.

c. Beginning of the year under audit and audit report release date.

d. Beginning of the year under audit and date of the financial statements.

Question14

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Which party should request a letter regarding litigation, claims, and assessments from the client’s attorney?

Select one:

a. Attorney

b. Securities and Exchange Commission or other regulatory body.

c. Client

d. Auditors

Question15

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Which of the following reporting options is available if the client refuses to provide written representations to auditors?

Select one:

a. Qualified opinion or disclaimer of opinion.

b. Qualified or adverse opinion

c. Unqualified or qualified opinion

d. Disclaimer of opinion or adverse opinion

Question16

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Why is it the client’s decision to record adjustments to the financial statements?

Select one:

a. Auditors often do not have sufficient client-specific expertise to record adjustments to the financial statements

b. Having auditors adjust the financial statements would impair independence with respect to the client.

c. The financial statements are the responsibility of the client’s management.

d. The client will ultimately suffer any losses related to misstated financial statements

Question17

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Subsequent events occur between which two dates?

Select one:

a. Date of the auditors’ report and audit report release date.

b. Date of the financial statements and audit report release date.

c. Date of the financial statements and date of the auditors’ report.

d. Audit report release date and beginning of subsequent year’s audit.

Question18

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Which of the following conditions or set of circumstances would not ordinarily raise questions about the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern:

Select one:

a. Negative cash flow from operations for each of the last three years.

b. Failure to meet forecasted earnings per share.

c. Legal proceedings that may have a significant negative impact on the entity.

d. Default on a loan due in the previous year.

Question19

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Long and Short, CPAs, were auditing Island Corporation for the year ended December 31, 2012. On January 11, 2013, a major customer of Island Corporation declared bankruptcy as the result of an uninsured loss due to a major fire in its warehouse on January 8, 2013. As a result, a material accounts receivable from the customer was determined to be uncollectible. Long and Short, CPAs, would expect the client to

Select one:

a. Treat the loss as a subsequent event and provide a footnote about the loss in the 2012 financial statements

b. Treat the loss as a subsequent event and adjust the 2012 financial statements to record the loss on uncollectible accounts

c. File a lawsuit against the customer in hopes of collecting some of the money owed to the client

d. Record the loss on uncollectible accounts as a routine transaction in the year 2013

Question20

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The _____________________________ paragraph of the auditors’ report on the entity’s financial statements indicates that an audit has been conducted and identifies the financial statements the auditors examined.

Introductory

Question21

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When a scope limitation exists and the auditors have not been able to obtain sufficient appropriate evidence on a particular account balance or disclosure, the auditors must choose between a(n) _____________________________ opinion and a(n) _____________________________ of opinion on the entity’s financial statements.

qualified, disclaimer of

Question22

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When the auditors lack independence, a(n) ______________________________________ opinion is issued on the fairness of the entity’s financial statements.

disclaimer of opinion

Question23

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The scope paragraph of the standard report on the entity’s financial statements does not include the statement

Select one:

a. “An audit also includes assessing the accounting principles used and significant estimates made by management….”

b. “Those standards require that we plan and perform the audit to obtain reasonable assurance….”

c. “In conformity with accounting principles generally accepted in the United States of America….”

d. “We believe that our audits provide a reasonable basis for an opinion.”

Question24

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If financial statements contain a material but nonpervasive departure from generally accepted accounting principles, the auditors should render a(n)

Select one:

a. Disclaimer of opinion

b. Adverse opinion with reference to departure.

c. Qualified opinion with reference to departure.

d. Adverse opinion with scope limitation reference.

Question25

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Auditors will issue an adverse opinion when

Select one:

a. A qualified opinion cannot be rendered because the auditors lack independence.

b. A severe scope limitation has been imposed by the entity.

c. A violation of generally accepted accounting principles is sufficiently material and pervasive that a qualified opinion is not justified.

d. The entity’s ability to continue as a going concern is subject to substantial doubt.

Question26

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When auditors render an adverse opinion on the entity’s financial statements, the

Select one:

a. Auditors do not possess all necessary evidence.

b. Departures do not need to be explained in the auditors’ report.

c. Introductory and scope paragraph should not be modified.

d. Auditors require less evidence to support the opinion.

Question27

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You are an auditor on an engagement. You observe your client take a physical count of their inventory. What is the primarily purpose of this audit procedure?

Select one:

a. Assist the client in taking test counts of year-end inventory.

b. Determine whether inventory contains obsolete goods.

c. Verify independently the physical counts obtained by the client.

d. Test and observe the client’s physical count of inventory.

Question28

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You are an auditor on an engagement. You select an inventory item on your client’s warehouse floor, test count it, and trace the count to the final inventory compilation. You are most likely testing the PCAOB assertion of __________

Select one:

a. Completeness

b. Rights and Obligations

c. Valuation

d. Existence

Question29

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You are an auditor on an engagement.

You select a product maintained in the finished goods warehouse. You count the product and compare this amount with the amount to the finished goods perpetual inventory subsidiary account. Which ASB balance assertion are you most likely testing?

Select one:

a. Existence

b. Rights and Obligations

c. Completeness

d. Valuation

Question30

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Susan is an auditor on an engagement.

Susan would most likely make inquiries of production and sales personnel concerning possible obsolete or slow-moving inventory to support management’s financial statement (PCAOB) assertion of ______

Select one:

a. Existence or occurrence

b. Rights and obligations

c. Valuation or allocation

d. Presentation and disclosure

Question31

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Susan is an auditor on an engagement. Her client is a manufacture.

To determine her client’s planned timing of production of a product, she will review the ________

Select one:

a. Sales forecast

b. Production plan

c. Purchases journal

d. Inventory reports

Question32

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You are an auditor on an engagement.

The risk that your own procedures will lead to the decision that material misstatements do not exist in the financial statements when in fact such misstatements do exist is _______ risk

a. Audit risk

b. Inherent risk

c. Control risk

d. Detection risk

Question33

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The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 prohibits public accounting firms from providing which of the following services to an audit client?

Select one:

a. All of these services are prohibited.

b. Valuation services.

c. Internal audit services.

d. Bookkeeping services.

Question34

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The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 generally prohibits public accounting firms from

Select one:

a. Auditing the firm’s own work on an audit client.

b. Providing tax consulting to an audit client without audit committee approval.

c. All of these activities are prohibited

d. Acting in a managerial decision-making role for an audit client.

Question35

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The likelihood that material misstatements may have entered the accounting system and not been detected and corrected by the client’s internal control is referred to as

Select one:

a. Risk of material misstatement.

b. Inherent risk.

c. Control risk.

d. Detection risk.

1. An elegy is a lament for something lost, often for the death of a person. What losses does Oliver write about in this essay?

2. At the end of a tradional elegy, the poet or writer offers consolation to the bereaved or hope for the future. Does Oliver often consolation, does she leave the reader with a sense of loss? Locate the places in the ending(paragraph 13-14) that support your response.

PLEASE READ THE GUIDELINES HOW TO RESPONSE TO THE QUESTONS CURRENTLY. I ATTACH THE READING DOCUMENTS AND THE GUIDLINES. I WROTE THE TWO QUESTIONS ABOVE. THANK YOU.

MGMT338, International Business, Test #1, June 22, 2015

 There are six pages of questions so be sure to answer all the questions.  Be sure to read each question carefully.  Be sure you understand what the question is asking.  Answer only the questions ask, but in a thorough manner.  The questions are graded on the quality of the content not the length of the answer. 

I. (6 pts) Leslie Igles is being sent to Guatemala as the new manager of a local subsidiary of a U.S. firm. She has a participatory management style and is known for her ability to relate to the workers by occasionally stepping in and working along side of them. Answer the following True and False questions using Hofstede’s Five Dimensions.

T   F  1. This management style will work well with Guatemala’s Power Distance rating.

T   F  2. Uncertainty Avoidance levels in Guatemala will make it difficult for Leslie to make changes.

T   F  3. The Individualism level in Guatemala is higher than in Sweden.

II. (57 pts) Select the best answer.

1.  The major globalization drivers include all of the following except:

            A)  Competitive

            B)  Social

            C)  Technological

            D)  Market

            E)   None. All of the above are major kinds of globalization drivers

2.   Foreign Direct Investment

            A)  is the same as Portfolio Investment.

            B)  involves management participation as does Portfolio Investment.

            C)  from developing nations substantially increased from 1990 to 2009.

            D)  has steadily increased since 2000.

            E)   (B) and (D) above.

3. According to the theory of comparative advantage,

            A)  a nation needs to have an absolute advantage in at least one good to gain from trade.

            B)  nations can gain from trade if they are not equally efficient in producing two goods.

            C)  a nation should produce the goods where its disadvantage is the greatest.

            D)  only (B) and (C) above.

            E)   only (A) and (B) above

4.  The international business manager can choose to: 
A. transfer a management practice intact.
B. transfer and adjust a management practice.
C. not transfer a management practice at all.
D. All of the above
E. only (A) and (B) above.

5. From comparisons of income distribution studies over time, it appears that in early stages of development:

            A)  the inequality in income between rich and poor nations increases when purchasing power parity data is used.

            B)  income inequality has narrowed from globalization in most developing nations.

            C)  the income inequality in China has widened.

            D)  All of the above.

            E)   only (B) and (C)  above

6. The percentage of the population living in urban areas is:

            A)  increasing in high-income nations, but decreasing in low- and middle-income nations.

            B)  decreasing everywhere.

            C)  increasing in low- and middle-income nations, but decreasing in high-income nations.

            D)  becoming younger because older people retire to rural areas.

            E) None of the above

7. An organization with multicountry affiliates, each of which formulates its own business strategy based on perceived market differences is a

(A) international company

(B) multidomestic company

(C) global company

(D) only (B) and (C) above

(E) only (A) and (B) above

8. According to Table 2.1, the following country (ies) is (are) in the top five in all four categories:

A. China

B. Japan

C. Germany

D. all of the above

E. only (A) and (C) above

9.  According to proponents of the globalization of trade and investment, 
A. globalization has produced uneven results across nations and people.
B. globalization has had harmful effects on labor and labor standards.
C. globalization has contributed to a decline in environmental and health conditions.
D. all of the above.

E. None of the above

10.  Slightly more than half of the exports from developing nations go to developed nations and 
A. this proportion has been decreasing over the past 40 years.
B. over 70 percent of exports from developed economies go to other industrialized nations.
C. the portion of world trade accounted for by members of regional trade groups increased from 1980 to 2011.
D. all of the above
E.  only (A) and (B) above

11.  Global Strategic Planning is 
A. the way firms make choices about acquiring and using scarce resources.
B. the process by which an organization determines where it is going in the future.
C. an assessment conducted on the chain of interlinked activities of an organization.
D. only (B) and (C) above
E. None of the above.

12.  A Balance of Payment trade deficit 

A. could cause a country to implement restrictive monetary policies.
B. could cause a country to implement restrictive fiscal policies.
C. may affect a manager’s choice of strategic risks to take.
D. All of the above.
E. only (A) and (C) above.

13.  __________ is/are straining the social security systems of Japan and other industrialized nations. 
A. An aging population
B. The fact that retirees are living longer
C. The fact that a smaller percent of the population is working
D. All of the above.
E. only (A) and (B) above

14. Anti-trust law

            A. in the U.S. has per se violations where no harm has to be proven.

B.  in the EU and the U.S. the focus of anti-trust law is on the impact on consumers.

            C. in the U.S. applies to Canadian firms in their business activity in the U.S.

            D. all of the above

            E. only (A) and (C) above

15. Intellectual Property Laws

            A. vary from country to country.

            B. are uniform throughout the world.

            C. in most nations do protect trade secrets.

            D. only (A) and (C) above

            E. only (B) and (C) above

16. The following would be considered a positive political force to a business:

            A. Government ownership of businesses

            B. Nationalism

            C. Privatization

            D. all of the above

            E. only (A) and (B) above

17. Inflation makes international business management more difficult because:

            A)  interest rates go up.

            B)  capital raising and expenditure planning are more difficult.

            C)  inflation is at different rates in different countries.

            D)  all of the above.

            E)  only (A) and (C) above

18.   Under currency exchange controls,

            A)  the currency’s value is arbitrarily fixed by the government and not market forces.

            B)  the currency’s value is set at a rate higher than its value in the free market.

            C)  the currency is freely convertible in the market.

            D)  only (A) and (B) above

            E)   None of the above

19.  When an international contract contains an arbitration clause, the parties can seek arbitration through the:

            A)  International Court of Arbitration of the International Chamber of Commerce in Paris.

            B)  WIPO Arbitration and Mediation Center.

            C)  the International Court of Justice in The Hague

            D)   only (A) and (B) above

            E)   any of the above is appropriate.

III. (36 pts)

T    F   1.  Globalization may produce uneven results across nations and people. 

T    F   2.   Transnational corporations account for approximately 25 percent of total global output and nearly 80 percent of world trade. 

T   F    3. A firm’s size may at times give it bargaining power with the government of a country even though it must comply with the country’s laws.

T   F   4. Both ThinkPad and Chinet are brands owned by non-US firms.

T   F   5. US exports have decreased as US foreign direct investment has increased.

T   F   6. Small firms (those with fewer than 500 employees) account for 97% of the dollar value of US merchandise exports.

T   F   7.  The magnitude of international trade and how it has grown are reflected in that one-fourth of everything grown or made in the world is now exported. 

T   F   8.  Since WWII, economic integration has failed, largely because of nationalism. 

T   F   9.  Sustainable business is any business that potentially can operate at a profit                                in a particular country based upon the information acquired in a CRA.

T   F   10. When you see that it costs 1.77 Swiss francs to buy one US dollar but only

 .70 of a British pound, it does not mean that the British pound is a weaker

 currency than the Swiss franc.

T   F   11.  Countries that levy value-added taxes are permitted by WTO rules to                                      

                        rebate them to exporters.

T   F    12.  Britain’s former Prime Minister, Blair, pioneered what 

                        became a worldwide movement to privatize government activities.

T   F   13.  A choice of laws provision is used in international contracts to indicate                         which court will hear the case.

T   F   14. Management has no control or influence over external forces (uncontrollable forces).

T   F   15. Examining a problem in another culture using one’s own cultural values frequently leads to bad decision making.

T   F   16. Even though there has been a growth in regional trade organizations, there has been a decrease in regional trade since the creation of the WTO.

T  F  17.  All outsourcing involves transferring jobs to a foreign country. 

T  F  18.  The only competitive strategy that has proven to be successful for international firms is the global strategy.

IV. (28 pts) Select only four of the five choices below and explain what each is and what role each plays in international trade:

a. EU and the WTO

b. Climate and the two components of culture (page 94)

c. Intellectual property and enforcement of intellectual property rights internationally(You can use the videos from week three to answer this). 

d. From the video from week one discuss Karma as it relates to international business AND from the video for week three discuss why there are language issues even though English is the native language of a potential foreign market. 

e. Country Risk Assessment in a country and Purchase Power Parity.

V. (9 pts)  If the exchange rate of the dollar and the Euro goes from one Euro equals $1.20 cents in 2014 to one Euro equals $1.11 in 2015, has the dollar strengthened or weakened and why?   If this happens, what is the impact on importers to the U.S. from the EU and on exporters from the U.S. to the EU? 

VI. (14 pts)  Name and explain the concept of tariff barriers and name and explain one reason countries maintain trade barriers, such as tariffs, and state whether or not this reason is justified and why or why not.  What is the impact of these barriers on the efficient allocation of a country’s resources?   What is the impact on the consumers that purchase the items to which the barriers apply?

Test is attached, book for reference

Ball, Donald A. “Natural Resources and Enviornmental Sustainability.”International Business: The Challenge of Global Competition. 13th ed. New

York: McGraw-Hill/Irwin, 2013. Print.

In this lesson you will practice creating a balance sheet and cash flow statement. You will apply this experience to your own financial statements.

Your balance sheet should look similar to the one found on page 74 of your textbook (Table 3-2). Your cash flow statement should look similar to the one found on page 77 (Table 3-3) of your textbook. For the balance sheet you should have between 3-4 columns, for the cash flow statement, you should have 3 columns.

**Hint: The far right column on each sheet is a percentage. Did you figure out where are they getting that percentage from?

On the balance sheet, your total assets represents the 100% baseline, so (look on page 74) the total assets were $372, 620→ $372,620/$372,620= 100%. Now we take each individual asset and divide it by $372,620. For instance, cash on hand was 260→ 260/372,620= 0.0006977, move the decimal place twice (because in order to find a percent we need to multiply the number by 100) and that gives you 0.07%; cash on hand represents 0.07% of the total assets.

This also applies to the liabilities on the balance sheet. All of the individual liabilities are divided by the total liabilities ($372,620). For instance, the dentist bill due was 120→ 120/372,620 is 0.000322, move the decimal place twice and you have 0.03%; the dentist bill represents 0.03% of the total liabilities.

Now for the cash flow statement. It is just like the balance sheet in that we are going to use a number as our baseline. In the income section, it is the total income that represents our 100%. See page 77 (Table 3-3); all of our individual income figures are going to be divided by the total income. For instance, total income is $89,000: Victor’s gross salary is 63,180→ 63,180/89,000= 0.70988, move the decimal places twice and Victor’s gross salary represents 70.99% of the total income.

In the expenditures section, the total expenses represents our 100% baseline. All of the individual expenditures will be divided by the total expenses figure. In this case, the total expenses is $89,000. The food expense in this statement is 4,900→ 4,900/89,000= 0.05505, move the decimal place twice and the food expense represents 5.51% of the total expenses.

**Complete problem 5 below which is taken from the Do the Math exercises on page 97 of your textbook. Create a balance sheet by using tables in Word or by using an Excel spreadsheet.

Construct Financial Statements. Thomas Green has been a retail salesclerk for six years. At age 35, he is divorced with one child, Amanda, age 7. Thomas’s salary is $36,000 per year. He regularly receives $400 per month for child support from Amanda’s mother. Thomas invests $100 each month ($50 in his mutual fund and $50 in U.S. savings bonds). Using the following information, construct a balance sheet and a cash-flow statement for Thomas.

For additional assistance completing this week’s assignment, review the following study guide:  Week 2 Study Guide.

Garman, E. T., & Forgue, R. E. (2015). Personal Finance (12th ed.).Mason, OH: Cengage Learning.